Credit Appraisal Questions for Bank Exam
SBI CBO · BOI Credit Officers · IBPS RRB Scale 2 GBO · Professional Knowledge
14 sample MCQs with full working · 5 exam trap callouts · MPBF, DSCR, NPA, MSME, Project Finance
Credit appraisal is the highest-weightage topic in every specialist credit officer exam. SBI CBO, BOI Credit Officers, and IBPS RRB Scale 2 GBO all test it heavily under Professional Knowledge. Unlike general banking awareness, credit appraisal questions require you to calculate, apply frameworks, and interpret financials under exam pressure. This article covers every major topic cluster with concept explanations, exam traps, worked examples, and 2 sample questions per section. For the full 80-question timed mock, grab it for ₹10 below.
Working Capital Assessment
Section 1Working capital finance is the lifeblood of trade and industry — and the RBI-appointed Tandon Committee (1974) laid down the foundational framework that Indian banks still follow. The committee recommended three methods for determining the Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) — the ceiling on working capital credit a bank can extend to a borrower.
The Current Ratio acts as a health signal: an ideal ratio of 1.33:1 under Method II indicates that the borrower is funding 25% of current assets from own sources (Net Working Capital). A ratio below 1:1 signals technical insolvency — more current liabilities than current assets.
Drawing Power — the actual limit a borrower can draw against at any time — equals Eligible Stock minus Creditors minus the prescribed Margin. This is computed from stock statements submitted monthly. For a detailed walkthrough, see our Drawing Power Calculator.
CMA Data (Credit Monitoring Arrangement) is the financial data package submitted by borrowers. It includes a Projected Balance Sheet, Fund Flow Statement, and Operating Statement — together these show the working capital gap. The Chore Committee (1979) followed Tandon and tightened credit discipline, making quarterly data submissions mandatory.
| Method | Formula | NWC Required | When Used |
|---|---|---|---|
| Method I | 0.75 × (CA − CL excl. bank) | 25% of WC gap | Liberal / rarely used |
| Method II | 0.75 × CA − CL (excl. bank borrowings) | 25% of total CA | Standard PSB benchmark |
| Method III | All WC from own funds + market borrowings; bank only on demand basis | 100% of WC from borrower | Not practically used |
🚨 EXAM TRAP
Method I requires the borrower to contribute 25% of the WC gap. Method II requires 25% of total current assets — a higher bar. Questions often give numbers and ask which method applies. If the bank is financing 75% of CA minus all outside CL, it is Method II.
Under Tandon Committee Method II, the bank will finance:
(a) 75% of the working capital gap
(b) The entire working capital gap
(c) 75% of current assets minus current liabilities (excluding bank borrowings)
(d) 100% of current assets minus 25% margin
✅ Answer: (c) — Method II MPBF Formula
Method II MPBF = 0.75 × CA − CL (excl. bank). Example: CA = ₹100L, CL = ₹20L → MPBF = 75 − 20 = ₹55L. The borrower must fund at least 25% of CA (₹25L) from own sources (NWC ≥ ₹25L).
CA = ₹80L, CL (excl. bank) = ₹20L. What is the MPBF under Method II?
(a) ₹60 lakh
(b) ₹45 lakh
(c) ₹40 lakh
(d) ₹35 lakh
✅ Answer: (c) ₹40 lakh
Working: 0.75 × 80 − 20 = 60 − 20 = ₹40 lakh. The borrower must contribute ₹20L (25% of CA = ₹80L × 0.25) from own sources.
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12 more Working Capital questions — including 3 full MPBF calculations — in the Bankopedia mock test. Just ₹10.
Financial Ratio Analysis
Section 2Financial ratios translate raw balance sheet numbers into signals a credit officer can act on. The Current Ratio (CA/CL) has a PSB benchmark of ≥ 1.33; below 1 signals technical insolvency. The Quick Ratio ((CA − Inventory)/CL) strips out inventory illiquidity; ≥ 1 is preferred.
Leverage ratios matter for term loans: Debt-Equity Ratio (TL/TNW) should be ≤ 2:1 for most term loans; infrastructure and priority-sector lending allow higher leverage. TOL/TNW (Total Outside Liabilities / Tangible Net Worth) measures overall leverage; PSB norm is ≤ 4:1.
The Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR) is the most exam-critical formula: DSCR = (PAT + Depreciation) ÷ (Principal repayment + Interest on TL). Minimum 1.5x for project finance in most PSBs. Interest Coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest; ≥ 2x preferred. Profitability ratios — Net Profit Margin (PAT/Net Sales × 100) and ROCE (EBIT / Capital Employed × 100) — round out the assessment.
🚨 EXAM TRAP
DSCR numerator = PAT + Depreciation (= Net Cash Accrual). NOT PAT alone. Many candidates use PAT alone. Depreciation is added back because it is a non-cash charge — the business does not pay cash for it. PAT + Dep = what is actually available to service debt.
A DSCR of 0.9 means:
(a) The business generates 90% profit on sales
(b) The project has 90% capacity utilisation
(c) The business cannot fully service its debt obligations from cash accruals
(d) The D:E ratio is 0.9:1
✅ Answer: (c) — DSCR Below 1.0 Is a Red Flag
DSCR < 1 means the business generates less cash than it needs to repay principal + interest. The account may become NPA. The bank may consider restructuring or recalling the loan.
PAT = ₹12L, Depreciation = ₹3L, TL Principal repayment = ₹8L, Interest on TL = ₹4L. Calculate DSCR.
(a) 1.50
(b) 1.00
(c) 1.25
(d) 0.75
✅ Answer: (c) 1.25
Working: (12 + 3) ÷ (8 + 4) = 15 ÷ 12 = 1.25. Borderline — most PSBs require minimum 1.5x. This project needs closer scrutiny and perhaps additional collateral or promoter support.
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Credit Risk Assessment
Section 3Credit risk assessment goes beyond numbers. The classic 5 Cs framework covers: Character (integrity and track record), Capacity (ability to repay from cash flows), Capital (own funds and net worth), Collateral (security offered), and Conditions (macroeconomic and industry environment). An alternative mnemonic is the 5 Ps: Purpose, People, Payment, Protection, and Perspective.
Assessment combines qualitative factors — management quality, industry outlook, regulatory environment, market position — with quantitative analysis of financials, ratios, and cash flows. CIBIL scores guide retail and MSME lending: 750+ is good; 650–749 acceptable with conditions; below 650 warrants caution.
FOIR (Fixed Obligation to Income Ratio) applies mainly to retail loans: a ceiling of 40–50% means total monthly EMI/fixed obligations cannot exceed 40–50% of gross monthly income. MSME FOIR varies by turnover and loan purpose.
🚨 EXAM TRAP
Credit appraisal ≠ credit risk ≠ credit monitoring. Appraisal = ex-ante assessment BEFORE sanction. Credit risk = probability of default (ongoing concern). Monitoring = post-disbursement surveillance. Exams test whether candidates distinguish these three stages.
FOIR stands for and has a typical ceiling of:
(a) Fixed Obligation to Income Ratio — ceiling typically 40–50% for retail
(b) Financial Obligation Indicator Ratio — ceiling 60%
(c) Fixed Output Interest Rate — ceiling 35%
(d) Floating Obligation to Income Ratio — no fixed ceiling
✅ Answer: (a) — FOIR Defined
FOIR = all monthly fixed obligations (EMIs, rent, insurance) divided by gross monthly income. A ceiling of 40% means if income = ₹1L/month, max EMI burden = ₹40,000.
Which of the 5 Cs relates to the macroeconomic environment affecting repayment?
(a) Character
(b) Capital
(c) Capacity
(d) Conditions
✅ Answer: (d) Conditions
Conditions refers to the economic, industry, and regulatory environment. Example: a steel manufacturer during import duty cuts faces adverse Conditions even with good Character and Capacity.
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Security and Collateral
Section 4The type of charge created over an asset determines the bank's enforcement rights. Pledge: possession transferred to the bank (gold, FDs, shares) — bank has right of sale on default. Hypothecation: possession remains with borrower (stock, vehicles, plant); only a charge is created. Most working capital loans use hypothecation.
Mortgage creates a charge on immovable property. Equitable mortgage (deposit of title deeds) is most common in banking. Legal mortgage requires a registered deed. Assignment transfers rights to intangible assets (LIC policy, book debts) — the standard charge for receivables financing. Lien is the right to retain goods until debt is paid (e.g., bank lien on fixed deposits).
A Fixed Charge is on a specific identified asset (e.g., a particular machine); the asset cannot be sold without the bank's permission. A Floating Charge is over a class of assets (e.g., all current assets); it crystallises on default. Primary security is the asset financed (machinery for a machinery loan); Collateral security is the additional top-up (a property mortgaged to supplement the primary charge).
Under the SARFAESI Act, Section 13(2) requires the bank to issue a 60-day demand notice to the borrower. If dues remain unpaid, Section 13(4) empowers the bank to take possession of secured assets — without a court order. SARFAESI applies for loans ≥ ₹1 lakh in NPA accounts where security value ≥ loan amount. DRT (Debt Recovery Tribunals) handle debt recovery for dues above ₹20 lakh.
| Asset | Charge Type | Possession |
|---|---|---|
| Gold / FDs / Shares | Pledge | Bank |
| Stock in trade / Vehicles | Hypothecation | Borrower |
| Immovable property | Mortgage | Borrower (Equitable) |
| Book debts / Receivables | Assignment | N/A (right transfer) |
| Bank deposits | Lien | Bank |
| All current assets (floating) | Floating Charge | Borrower (until crystallisation) |
🚨 EXAM TRAP
Pledge = possession with BANK. Hypothecation = possession with BORROWER. Car loan = hypothecation (borrower drives the car, bank holds charge). Gold loan = pledge (bank keeps the gold). This distinction appears in almost every bank exam.
Under SARFAESI Act Section 13(2), a bank can proceed to take possession after issuing notice of how many days?
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
✅ Answer: (c) 60 days
The bank issues a 60-day demand notice to the borrower. If dues are not cleared in 60 days, the bank can take possession of secured assets under Section 13(4) without court intervention.
A borrower's trade receivables (book debts) are charged to the bank. What type of charge is this?
(a) Pledge
(b) Hypothecation
(c) Assignment
(d) Lien
✅ Answer: (c) Assignment
Receivables are intangible future cash flows. The borrower assigns the right to collect these debts to the bank. Assignment is the appropriate charge for book debts, insurance policies, and debentures.
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Security and SARFAESI questions form 8–10 marks in the BOI Credit Officer exam. Practice all of them in the mock test. Just ₹10.
NPA Classification and Provisioning
Section 5An account becomes a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) when interest or principal is overdue for more than 90 days (term loans / CC/OD). Agricultural loans follow a different clock: 2 crop seasons, effectively ~180 days. The moment an account becomes NPA, the bank must stop recognising interest income in the P&L — any interest received or accrued goes into the Interest Suspense Account.
The IRAC asset classification waterfallis: Standard → Sub-Standard (up to 12 months as NPA) → Doubtful D1 (12–24 months) → Doubtful D2 (24–36 months) → Doubtful D3 (>36 months as D1+D2 combined) → Loss (irrecoverable; fully written off/provided). Restructured accounts attract an additional 5% provision over the normal requirement.
Before an account becomes NPA, it passes through SMA (Special Mention Account) buckets: SMA-0 (1–30 days overdue), SMA-1 (31–60 days), SMA-2 (61–90 days). SMA-2 is the final warning — the account is still Standard but the clock is ticking toward NPA classification.
| Category | Overdue Period | Provisioning (Secured) | Provisioning (Unsecured) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Standard | Current | 0.4% (general) | 0.4% |
| Sub-Standard | 0–12 months as NPA | 15% | 15% |
| Doubtful – D1 | 12–24 months as NPA | 25% | 100% |
| Doubtful – D2 | 24–36 months as NPA | 40% | 100% |
| Doubtful – D3 | >36 months as NPA | 100% | 100% |
| Loss | Identified; irrecoverable | 100% | 100% |
| SMA Category | Overdue Days | Status |
|---|---|---|
| SMA-0 | 1–30 days | Standard — Early warning |
| SMA-1 | 31–60 days | Standard — Concern |
| SMA-2 | 61–90 days | Standard — High risk; triggers review |
| NPA | >90 days | Non-Performing Asset |
🚨 EXAM TRAPS (Two)
1. SMA-2 is 61–90 days overdue — STILL Standard, NOT yet NPA. NPA triggers at day 91+.
2. Once NPA, interest is NOT credited to P&L. It goes to Interest Suspense Account. Even if the borrower actually pays interest on an NPA account, it is NOT income until the account is UPGRADED to Standard.
A term loan has been overdue for 75 days. What is its classification?
(a) NPA
(b) SMA-1
(c) SMA-2
(d) Loss account
✅ Answer: (c) SMA-2
61–90 days overdue = SMA-2. Still a Standard Asset but high-risk. NPA classification only triggers after 90 days.
What is the provisioning requirement for a Doubtful-2 SECURED account?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 100%
✅ Answer: (c) 40%
D2 = 24–36 months as NPA. Secured = 40% provision. If unsecured, 100% provisioning is required.
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NPA and provisioning questions carry 10–15 marks in every credit specialist exam. Practice all variants in the mock test. Just ₹10.
Priority Sector and MSME Lending
Section 6Priority Sector Lending (PSL) mandates that domestic scheduled commercial banks direct 40% of their ANBC (Adjusted Net Bank Credit) to priority sectors. Sub-targets include: Agriculture 18% of ANBC (with 10% specifically for small and marginal farmers), Weaker Sections 12%, and Micro Enterprises 7.5% of ANBC. Foreign banks with fewer than 20 branches also have a 40% ANBC target but with different sub-target structures.
The MSME definition revised in 2020 uses a dual criterion of investment in plant & machinery AND annual turnover. Both thresholds must be satisfied simultaneously. The Mudra Yojana caters to micro enterprises: Shishu (loans up to ₹50,000), Kishor (₹50K–₹5L), Tarun (₹5L–₹10L). Stand-Up India supports SC/ST and women entrepreneurs for greenfield enterprises in the ₹10L–₹1Cr range.
| Category | Investment in Plant & Machinery | Annual Turnover |
|---|---|---|
| Micro Enterprise | ≤ ₹1 crore | ≤ ₹5 crore |
| Small Enterprise | ≤ ₹10 crore | ≤ ₹50 crore |
| Medium Enterprise | ≤ ₹50 crore | ≤ ₹250 crore |
A manufacturing unit has investment of ₹8 crore and annual turnover of ₹45 crore. Which MSME category does it fall under?
(a) Micro
(b) Small
(c) Medium
(d) Not an MSME
✅ Answer: (b) Small Enterprise
Investment ₹8Cr ≤ ₹10Cr AND Turnover ₹45Cr ≤ ₹50Cr = Small Enterprise. Both conditions must be met. If turnover exceeded ₹50Cr, it would move to Medium.
What is the PSL sub-target for Micro Enterprises for domestic banks?
(a) 5% of ANBC
(b) 7.5% of ANBC
(c) 10% of ANBC
(d) 12% of ANBC
✅ Answer: (b) 7.5% of ANBC
The Micro Enterprises sub-target was introduced in 2018 and stands at 7.5% of ANBC. This is separate from the overall 40% PSL target and the Agriculture sub-target of 18%.
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Project Finance Appraisal
Section 7Large project loans require a TEV Study (Techno-Economic Viability)conducted by an independent expert or consultant — not the bank's own credit team (to avoid conflict of interest) and not the borrower's CA. The TEV assesses both technical feasibility and financial viability. Cost is typically borne by the borrower.
Means of Finance for project funding: Promoter equity + Term Loan + Internal Accruals. D:E ratio benchmarks are 2:1 for general projects and up to 3:1 for infrastructure and priority sectors. The Moratorium Period — the post-disbursement window before repayments begin — is typically 1–2 years for large projects. DSCR is not tested during the moratorium; banks calculate DSCR for the full repayment period only.
BEP (Break Even Point)expressed as percentage of installed capacity is a key viability metric. BEP at 45% means the project covers all costs when operating at 45% capacity — well below full utilisation. PSBs prefer BEP < 60%. A higher BEP signals a riskier project with less cushion against demand shortfalls.
Sensitivity Analysis stress-tests the project by changing key assumptions: typically a 10% fall in revenue, a 10% rise in input costs, or a 1% rise in interest rates. This reveals which variable the project is most sensitive to. Finally, if the project's IRR exceeds WACC, the project creates value for the promoter — a fundamental hurdle for sanction.
🚨 EXAM TRAP
TEV studies are conducted by independent experts, not bank staff. Also: the moratorium period affects DSCR calculation — during moratorium only interest accrues (no principal repayment), so DSCR appears artificially high. Banks always calculate DSCR for the full repayment period, never the moratorium period.
A project with BEP at 45% of installed capacity indicates:
(a) The project is high-risk
(b) The project cannot cover its variable costs at full capacity
(c) The project covers all costs at less than half capacity — low risk
(d) The project needs 55% more capacity to be viable
✅ Answer: (c) Low risk — wide cushion
If the project breaks even at only 45% capacity, it has a 55% cushion before losses occur. Banks prefer BEP < 60%. Below 60% is considered commercially viable even with significant demand underperformance.
Who conducts a TEV study for a large project loan?
(a) The bank's internal credit committee
(b) An independent expert / consultant appointed by the bank
(c) The borrower's CA firm
(d) The Ministry of Finance
✅ Answer: (b) Independent Expert
TEV is conducted by an independent expert — not the bank's own credit team (conflict of interest) and not the borrower's CA (not independent). The cost is typically borne by the borrower.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What is the most important topic in SBI CBO professional knowledge?+
Credit Appraisal and Working Capital Assessment consistently carry the highest weightage — typically 25–30% of Professional Knowledge marks. Focus on MPBF formulas (Tandon Methods I and II), DSCR calculation, and NPA classification. These three alone cover roughly 15–20 questions in a 100-mark paper.
How is DSCR calculated for a term loan?+
DSCR = (PAT + Depreciation) ÷ (Annual Principal Repayment + Annual Interest on Term Loan). The numerator is Net Cash Accrual (PAT + Dep), NOT just PAT. PSBs typically require a minimum DSCR of 1.5x for project finance. A DSCR below 1.0 means the business cannot service its debt from its own cash flows.
What is the difference between hypothecation and pledge?+
In Pledge, possession of goods is transferred to the lender (bank keeps the gold in gold loans). In Hypothecation, possession remains with the borrower — only a charge is created (car loans, CC loans against stock). This distinction is tested in nearly every bank credit exam.
When does an account become NPA under RBI guidelines?+
An account becomes NPA when interest or principal remains overdue for more than 90 days (term loans) or remains out of order for 90 days (CC/OD). Agricultural loans: 2 crop seasons / effectively 180 days. The SMA-2 stage (61–90 days) is the final warning before NPA classification.
What is MPBF and which method do most banks use?+
Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) is the ceiling on working capital credit a bank can extend, as prescribed by the Tandon Committee (1974). Most public sector banks use Method II: MPBF = 0.75 × Current Assets − Current Liabilities (excluding bank borrowings). This requires the borrower to fund at least 25% of total current assets from own sources.
What is the minimum DSCR acceptable for project finance in Indian banks?+
Most public sector banks require a minimum DSCR of 1.5x averaged over the loan tenure. Some banks accept 1.25x for AAA-rated corporates with additional collateral. DSCR below 1.0x at any year during the repayment period is a red flag and typically requires review or restructuring.
Bankopedia Credit Appraisal Mock Test
80 Questions · 7 Topics · Timed · Full Answers
Covers every topic in this guide: Working Capital (MPBF), Ratio Analysis (DSCR), Credit Risk, Security & Collateral, NPA Provisioning, PSL & MSME, and Project Finance. Detailed answer explanations included.